Download Gist of NCERT Polity

Gist Of NCERT Polity

Download Gist of NCERT Polity

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Hope you all are doing well. Today we'r sharing Gist of NCERT Polity which is shared by one of our readers, Rohit. The short pdf will be helpful for all the aspirants who are preparing for the Civil services exam (UPSC), SSC and other state level exams. 
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PDF Name: Gist of NCERT Polity
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MCQs from this PDF:


1. Match the following features of the
Indian Constitution and their sources.
I II
(A) Bill of Rights and
Judicial Review 1. England
(B) Parliamentary system
of democracy 2. Ireland
(C) Directive Principles 3. U.S.A.
(D) Residuary powers
with Centre 4. Canada
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
2. In what way is the Indian Constitution
rigid?
(a) The provisions of the Constitution
can be amended with two-thirds
majority of Parliament alone
(b) The Centre alone can initiate
amendments
(c) The provisions regarding
constitutional relationship between
Union and State Governments can
he amended only with the joint
consent of Central and State
Legislatures
(d) The Indian Constitution is not rigid
3. “We the people of India having
solemnly resolved to constitute India
into a Sovereign Democratic Republic
and to secure to all citizens...” From
this statement we can conclude
(a) Sovereignty lies with the executive
of the country
(b) Sovereignty lies with the President
(c) Sovereignty lies with the people of
India
(d) Sovereignty lies with the elected
represent-atives of the people of
India
4. The Preamble to the Constitution of
India reads:
(a) We, the people of India .... in our
Constitution Assembly,... enact and
give to ourselves this Constitution
(b) We, the people of India ….in this
Constituent Assembly... decide to
enact and give to India this
Constitution.
(c) We, the people of India ….through
the representatives of this
Constituent Assembly. enact and
give to ourselves this Constitution.
(d) We, the members of the Constituent
Assembly,... representing the people
of India enact this Constitution.
5. Put the following in the ascending
order with regard to their years of
creation.
I. Andhra Pradesh II. Gujarat
III. Nagaland IV. Meghalaya
V. Haryana
(a) I, II, III, IV, V
(b) II, I, III, V, IV
(c) I, II, III, V, IV
(d) II, V, I, III, IV
6. The detailed provisions regarding
acquisition and termination of Indian
citizenship are contained in the
Citizenship Act which was passed by:
(a) the Indian Parliament in 1955
(b) the Indian Parliament in 1950
(c) the British Parliament in August
1948
(d) the Constituent Assembly in 1949
7. How can the Fundamental Rights be
protected by a citizen?
(a) By approaching the Supreme Court
which will issue appropriate writs
against the authority
(b) Parliament will take note of such
violations and tell the courts
(c) The Executive will inform the Courts
(d) It is automatically protected
8. Which Fundamental Right cannot be
suspended even during an emergency
tinder Article 352 of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom of speech and
expression
(c) Right of life
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
9. Which one of the following has been
wrongly listed as a freedom provided
to the Indian citizens under Article 19?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom of residence and settlement
(c) Freedom of profession
(d) Freedom of press
10. Cultural and Educational rights
include.
(a) Right of minorities to establish and
administer their educational
institutions
(b) Right of minorities to promote their
language
(c) Right against discrimination for
admission to educational
institutions on the grounds of
religion, race or caste
(d) All of these
11. The Indian Constitution declares that
protection of life and liberty
(a) can never be taken away in any
condition
(b) can be taken away only according to
procedure established by law
(c) can be taken away during the
Emergency through Presidential
order
(d) none of the above
12. The phrase ‘procedure established by
law’
(a) gives immense powers in the hands
of the courts regarding judicial
review
(b) gives the authority to the courts to
go into the question as to whether a
law is ‘due’ i.e. just or not
(c) limits the authority of the Indian
Courts in judicial review and the
courts cannot go into the question as
to whether a law is just or not
(d) None of the above is correct
13. What was the main decision of the
Supreme Court in the Golak Nath case
regarding the amendment of the
Fundamental Rights by the
Parliament?
(a) The Parliament had the right to
amend the Fundamental Rights
(b) The ordinary elected Parliament has
no right to amend the Fundamental
Rights included in the Constitution
which were quite sacred
(c) The Parliament had the right even
to repeal the Fundamental Rights
(d) None of the above
14. What was the main judgement of the
Supreme Court regarding
Parliament’s right to amend the
Fundamental Rights in the
Kesavananda Bharati case?
(a) The Supreme Court took away the
right of Parliament to amend the
Fundamental Rights
(b) The Supreme Court declared that
Parliament had no right to amend
the Fundamental Rights
(c) The Supreme Court upheld the right
of Parliament to amend any part of
the Constitution including Part III of
the Constitution but it also declared
that Parliament had no right to
amend the basic structure of the
Constitution
(d) None of the above
15. Habeas Corpus means:
(a) an order from a court to free a person
who had been illegally detained by
the police or any other person
(b) an order from a superior court
calling up the record of a proceeding
in an inferior court for review
(c) an order from the superior court to
an official to show his right to the
office
(d) an order from a higher court to stop
proceedings in a certain case
16. The writ of prohibition issued by the
Supreme Court or a High Court is
issued against:
(a) judicial or quasi judicial authorities
(b) administrative and judicial
authorities
(c) administrative authorities only
(d) administrative authorities and
government
17. The writ of Mandamus is available for
the purpose of:
I. Enforcement of fundamental rights
II. Compelling a court or judicial
tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction
when it has refused to exercise it
III. Directing a public official or the
Government not to enforce a law
which is unconstitutional
(a) I only (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II and Ill
18. What are the Gandhian Principles
incorporated in the Indian
Constitution?
I. Organisation of village panchayats
II. Establishment of cottage and small
scale industries in rural areas
III. Prohibition on use of intoxicating
liquor except for medicinal purposes
IV. Efforts to be made for the
development of weaker or backward
sections of the society
(a) I and II (b) I, III, IV
(c) II, III (d) All four
19. Which one of the following Directive
Principles of State Policy does not
come into the category of liberal
principles?
(a) The State shall endeavour to secure
a uniform civil code throughout the
territory of India
(b) The State shall protect every
monument or place or object of
artistic or historic interest
(c) The State shall endeavour to secure
to all workers a living wage and
conditions of work ensuring a decent
standard of life
(d) The State shall take steps to separate
the judiciary from the executive
20. The President of India is not a member
of Parliament because:
(a) he has to see that he remains
impartial
(b) he does not need to be
(c) he would then hold an office of profit
under the Government
(d) his position will be lowered if he
becomes a member of Parliament
21. Regarding the powers and functions
of the President it is not correct to say
that
(a) all legislative proposals involving
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India have to be
recommended by the President to
the Parliament for consideration
(b) no money bill or demand for grant
can be introduced or moved in the
Parliament unless it has been
recommended by the President
(c) The may direct the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court to take over a
particular case for disposal
(d) he calls upon the party enjoying
majority in the Lok Sabha to choose
its leader who is then appointed as
the Prime Minister
22. The Law Officers who hold office at
the pleasure of the President are
(a) The Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court and the Attorney General
(b) The Attorney General and the
Solicitor General
(c) The Attorney General and the Law
Minister
(d) The Law Minister and any judge of
the Supreme Court or of a High
Court
23. A Member of Parliament or a State
Legislature can be elected as
President, but
I. he has to resign his seat before
contesting election
II. he has to relinquish his seat as soon
as he is elected
III. he has to relinquish his seat within
six months of his election
(a) Only I (b) II
(c) III
(d) A Member of Parliament can contest
but a member of State Legislature
cannot contest
24. Which one of the following steps
cannot be taken by the President
during Financial Emergency?
(a) Direct the Union and State
Governments to observe such
canons of financial propriety as he
deems desirable
(b) Suspend the Fundamental Rights of
the Indian Citizens
(c) Order reduction of salaries and
allowances of all civil servants
(d) Order the reduction of the salaries
of the Supreme Court and High
Court judges
25. Which of the following is/are correct?
I. No formal impeachment is required
for the removal of the Vice-President
II. No functions are attached to the
office of the VicePresident
as such
III. Dispute regarding election of Vice-
President is referred to the Election
Commission
IV. If the election of a President or the
Vice-President is declared void acts
done by him prior to the date of such
decision shall be invalidated
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, III, and IV
(c) I and II (d) All four
26. What do you understand from the
phrase ‘Collective responsibility of the
Cabinet’ to the Lok Sabha?
(a) The Cabinet is ultimately
answerable for all the acts of the
ruling party taken together
(b) The action of the Cabinet is the
action of each member, and that the
Cabinet is responsible as a whole for
the action of each member
(c) The Ministers are responsible to each
other collectively
(d) None of the above
27. Which one of the following functions
of the Prime Minister has been
wrongly listed?
(a) he presides over the meeting of the
cabinet
(b) he prepares the agenda for the
meetings of the cabinet
(c) he coordinates the working of
various departments
(d) he chairs the meetings of the various
standing and ad hoc committees of
parliament.
28. The legislative functions of the
Council of Ministers include the right
to:
(a) summon and prorogue the two
Houses of Parliament
(b) nominate two Anglo-Indian
members of Lok Sabha
(c) nominate some members to Rajya
Sabha
(d) Introduce important bills and
resolutions in the Parliament
29. The Council of Ministers is to aid and
advise the President in the exercise of
his functions:
(a) but the President is not bound to
accept its advice
(b) but the President may use his
discretion in certain matters
(c) but the President may avoid seeking
its advice or over rule the Council
of Ministers
(d) and the President is bound to act on
the advice of the Council of
Ministers
30. Which of the following is/are not
true?
I. There is no bar to the appointment
of a person from outside the
Legislature as Minister.
II. A Minister who is a Member of one
House cannot speak or take part in
proceedings of the other House.
III. A Minister who is a Member of one
House has no right to vote in the
House of which he is not a member.
(a) II and III (b) I and II
(c) I and III (d) II
31. The office and functions of the
Comptroller and AuditorGeneral
of
India include which of the following?
I. He ensures that the moneys voted
by the legislature are spent under
appropriate heads and that they are
not exceeded or used for other
purpose
II. He submits reports of the President
and the Governor
III. He should keep a vigilant eye on the
finances of the Union as well as the
States
(a) I and II (b) II
(c) II, III (d) All of them
32. Which of the following ensure the
independence of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India?
I. Only the President can remove him
on the grounds of proved
misbehaviour
II. His salary and conditions of service
shall be statutory, i.e. laid down by
parliament by law and shall not be
liable to variation during his term of
office
III. The salaries of the Auditor-General
and his staff and administrative
expenses of his office shall be
charged upon the revenue of India
and shall be non-votable
(a) I, II (b) II, III
(c) III (d) All of these
33. The Consolidated Fund of India is a
common pool in which
(a) all taxes collected by the
Government of India are deposited
(b) equal contributions from the Centre
and States are made and out of
which money can be taken as loan
to meet unforeseen contingencies
(c) all money received by or on behalf
of the Government of India in the
shape of revenues, fresh loans and
money received in repayment of
loans etc. are deposited
(d) States, Union Territories and Central
Government contribute ten per cent
of their revenues
34. Vote on account is made by the Lok
Sabha
(a) to meet the additional expenditure
incurred by the government on any
approved item of expenditure
during the supplementary budget
(b) to meet expenditure on secret service
(c) meet expenditure for a period before
the passing of the annual budget
(d) to meet expenditure on unexpected
demand
35. One of the following is not a method
by which the Parliament expresses
lack of confidence in the Council of
Ministers:
I. Rejecting a bill introduced by a
Minister
II. Declaring that the taxes proposed
have to be reduced
III. Passing a bill introduced by a private
member to which the Council of
Ministers is opposed
(a) I (b) I and III
(c) II (d) III

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